Wednesday, July 21, 2004

Homosexuality and the Bible

Recently, I have read a significant amount of material on homosexuality and how it relates to the Bible. I also recently found a new church here in Minneapolis, (www.bethanyinseward.com) and much to my surprise discovered that they are currently on the verge of breaking boundaries by ordaining an openly gay pastor. I personally could not be more supportive of this.

Let me return to my original thought though, the position of homosexuals in the bible. Citing passages in Romans and 2 Corinthians, many people have argued that homosexuality is a sin, and that therefore ideas like gay marriage should not be legalized.

In a recent conversation with my friend Fred, he stated that, barring a reinterpretation of these passages (something he is not opposed to) homosexuality appears to be sinful. I hesitate to use Fred as an example, but I believe his statement is emblematic of the problematic nature of the biblical debate over homosexuality. If I understand this statement correctly, a literal interpretation of the Bible forbids homosexuality, however if biblical scholars chose to provide an acceptable reinterpretation, then it might be ok.

There are several problems with approaching the question from this angle. First, if one only relies on a literal interpretation, what does that say about other aspects of life the Bible discusses. For example, when discussing sexual perversion, and self abuse, all of the passages argue that it is unaccepatable for a man to abuse himself, and lust after other women. Clearly this could be interpreted to understand that masturbation is frowned upon. However, since it only mentions men, does that mean it is ok for a woman to masturbate? Based solely on a literal interpretation of the Bible, it would appear so.

I believe it is extremely problematic to take the Bible literally. The scriptures so often cited have been translated numerous times through different cultures, periods, and by different types of people. Therefore, how are we to know that this is actually the original text? For all I know, the passage that explicitly forbids homosexuality could have been purposely altered by a 12th century monk who had a personal disdain for the practice. As a historian, I am constantly tought that one must be sceptical when researching, that one cannot always take a document at face value. I believe the same must be said for understanding the Bible. Its quite possible these passages were altered repeatedly to reflect the general norms of society at the time it was translated. I think its safe to say that 13 century Gaul is not the same as 21 Century Western society.

So how then is one to understand homosexuality? I do not believe it is necessary for one to rely on other people to interpret the scriptures for us. A central tennant of Lutheranism is that every person is his own intperpreter. Therefore, when trying to understand the Bible's position on homosexuality, it is necessary to properly contextualize the passages. For the purposes of this post, I will rely on Romans 1: 26- 2:6. In this passage it appears that Paul explicitly rejects homosexual acts. I find it interesting to note on a tangent, that the verse before states that women should be condemned for having sex in "unnatural ways." (Does this mean Missionary style is blessed, but that Doggie Style is a sin? :) ) However, I arrive at a different understanding, once it is contextualized.

As Paul condemns homosexuality, he is also very critical in his letter of Idol worshiping, and emphasizes that salvation can be found in faith and faith alone. It appears, that in his condemnation of idol worshiping, he uses sexual perversion and homosexuality to emphasize the selfish nature of these people. He indicates that these people are sinful because they place more emphasis on self-gratification than on worshiping God. Could it therefore also mean that homosexuality itself is not sinful, but is only sinful when one places sexual gratification above God?

It's now 3:18 am, and I really should get to bed, so let me conclude by saying, that we do not need to rely on scholars, or priests to interpret the Bible for us. If you want to believe homosexuality is a sin, thats fine, its your interpretation. However, I believe, through personal interpretation, its also possible to accept homosexuality.

3 Comments:

At 3:01 PM, Blogger TomServo0 said...

I'll post something later but I hope to clear up what I might have said that led to Paragraph 3. I said that over time the Bible may be reinterpreted to to achieve a more correct understanding of it. I didn't say that we should take a literal translation complementing a more abstract one that appears to contradict. In order to find an interpretation that contradicts what is said literally you would have to argue that the literal interpretation was fundamentally incorrect; that we had somehow read the words on the page and missed the true context. Adam and Eve may have eaten an apple, or may not, who cares? It may now be assumed that the first humans separated themselved from animals though a conscious understanding of God and sin and in their imperfection chose sin. This does not mean the Adam and Eve story is false, only that it may be a parable. Therefore such a reinterpretation does not contradict what the Bible says. Maybe that clears it up a bit.

 
At 4:40 PM, Blogger Arminius said...

Fred,

I did not mean to imply that you are accepting of only a literal interpretation. I meant to use your comments as part of my argument that every person is his own interpreter. Why do we need people officially designated as biblical scholars to interpret it? I believe that if you interpret it yourself, it is possible to arrive at a conclusion that is accepting of a homosexual lifestyle.

 
At 5:10 PM, Blogger TomServo0 said...

Awesome. Then I still love ya, baby. ;)

 

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